Matthew 24:29 Jesus "tribulation" — William Branham "pre-tribulation"
Ah there William Branham goes again..saying “the Lord said,” when the Lord did not say. How is it that the tribulation described by Jesus in Matthew 24 to be unparalleled in severity to anything before or after it and that ends with his parousia (i.e, bodily arrival) (2 Ths.2:8), be put forward as only a “pre-tribulation'' or an “amatuer tribulation” of the Jews only under Adolf Eichmann? Any and all message ministers and advocates are welcome to explain this.